Thursday, November 14, 2013

Question 22

22.  Your patient is a 19 year old female that presents with an “abnormal pap.”  Which of  the following is the best next step in management?


 A.  Colposcopy
 B.  Total Abdominal Hysterectomy
 C.  LEEP Procedure
 D.  Dilatation and Curettage


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